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why are some codes but not other specific to Israel? What's to separate it from homosexuality?
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Posted by shikantaza on 2012-05-09 15:42:38

In Reply to: Because the bible is taken as a whole. Not in isolated bits. posted by SHAUNsense on 2012-05-09 15:33:10

As far as I am aware, the new testament makes no mention of homosexuality, so I don't see how it would survive as universal moral law, while other laws would die as specific to Israel.

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