if the bible is inerrand AND it doesn't specifically say what sexual sin S/G was destroyed for - wouldn't a logical extension of that thought be that God purposefully inspired to not specify the sin? Then if you are commenting by your own insinuation what that sin(s) were that destroyed S/G, wouldn't you then be admitting that perhaps the bible isn't inerrand and needs "human" interpretation?

and that is a slippery slope no one wants to walk down as a fundy lol